Content deleted Content added
This is not true, it’s confusing two different concepts |
Use "big" delimiters where appropriate and remove unnecessary groups in math markup |
||
(4 intermediate revisions by 4 users not shown) | |||
Line 7:
:<math>x^i(p,m^i)</math>
The aggregate demand of society is, in general, a function of the price system and the entire distribution of incomes:
:<math>X(p,m^1,\dots,m^n) = \sum_{i=1}^n
To represent the entire society as a single consumer, the aggregate demand must be a function of only the prices and the ''total'' income, regardless of its distribution:
:<math>X(p,m^1,\dots,m^n) = X\left(p, \sum_{i=1}^n
Under what conditions is it possible to represent the aggregate demand in this way?
Line 39:
which is a special case of the Gorman form.
Indeed, the
::<math>x_i(p, m) =
Hence, the aggregate demand function for the nonlinear good also does not depend on income:
::<math>X(p, M) = \sum_{i=1}^n{(v_i')^{-1}(p)}</math>
Line 48:
::<math>(U')^{-1}(p) = \sum_{i=1}^n{(v_i')^{-1}(p)}</math>
In the special case in which all agents have the same utility function <math>u(x,m)=u(x)+m</math>, the aggregate utility function is:
::<math>U(x,M) = n \cdot u\left(\frac{x
=== [[Homothetic preferences]] ===
|