Talk:Inverse function rule: Difference between revisions

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The first symbol (''f''(x)<sup>&minus;1</sup>)<sup>'</sup> means ((1/''f''(x))<sup>&minus;1</sup>)<sup>'</sup> which equals -''f''<sup>&nbsp;'</sup>(x)/(''f''(x))<sup>2</sup>, not 1/''f''<sup>&nbsp;'</sup>(x). It seems that you are confused the symbol of pointwise inverse ''f''(x)<sup>&minus;1</sup>=1/''f''(x) with the symbol of inverse function ''f''<sup>&minus;1</sup>(''x'') [[User:Wshun|Wshun]].
 
Yes, but barring that issue (which can be easily corrected) is there any reason to exclude this example from the text? [[User:Pizza Puzzle|Pizza Puzzle]]
 
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