Talk:Wigner distribution function: Difference between revisions

Revision as of 17:59, 25 April 2020

Revision as of 15:27, 28 July 2022

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without giving a source. I do not understand how a mathematical operation can be bound by some physical theory. I doubt this claim. I guess there is some lower bound one can show for a class of transformations which is achieved by the wigner distribution function and that this bound also occurs somewhere in the quantum wave theory. <!-- Template:Unsigned IP --><small class="autosigned">—&nbsp;Preceding [[Wikipedia:Signatures|unsigned]] comment added by [[Special:Contributions/2A01:C22:8842:E400:15C:A911:1061:A3B3|2A01:C22:8842:E400:15C:A911:1061:A3B3]] ([[User talk:2A01:C22:8842:E400:15C:A911:1061:A3B3#top|talk]]) 16:53, 25 April 2020 (UTC)</small> <!--Autosigned by SineBot-->

: I suspect your are misreading the admittedly loose statement. There is no physics involved, and the allusion to "quantum wave theory" is just shorthand for the [[uncertainty principle]], a property of Fourier analysis, so pure math. It' just that most readers recognize the inequality as a quantum mechanical principle. Mere language. [[User:Cuzkatzimhut|Cuzkatzimhut]] ([[User talk:Cuzkatzimhut|talk]]) 17:59, 25 April 2020 (UTC)

::Perhaps you could quantify this idea (or point to a source) for the mathematically challenged among us. I can intuit that the resolution of the spectral content vs. time for the Wigner Transform would be much better than say the straightforward Short Time Fourier Transform method but could you help quantify that? [[User:Sdwehe|Sdwehe]] ([[User talk:Sdwehe|talk]]) 15:27, 28 July 2022 (UTC)