Revision as of 19:30, 28 April 2021 edit Volunteer Marek (talk \| contribs) Autopatrolled, Extended confirmed users, Pending changes reviewers, Rollbackers 94,414 edits This is not true, it’s confusing two different concepts ← Previous edit		Revision as of 10:34, 12 October 2022 edit undo 192.76.8.77 (talk) →Quasilinear utilities Next edit →
Line 39: which is a special case of the Gorman form. Indeed, the ~~marshallian~~Marshallian demand function for the nonlinear good of consumers with quasilinear utilities does not depend on the income at all (in this quasilinear case, the demand for the linear good is linear in income): ::<math>x_i(p, m) = (-dv(p)/dm)/(v(p)/dp_i) = -1/(dv(p)/dp_i) = (v_i')^ {-1}(p)= v_i'(p)^{-1}</math> Hence, the aggregate demand function for the nonlinear good also does not depend on income:

Gorman polar form: Difference between revisions