Lagrange inversion theorem: Difference between revisions

Revision as of 12:05, 26 August 2022

Revision as of 15:52, 27 October 2022

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==Sketch of the proof==

For simplicity suppose <math>z=0=f(w=0)</math>, and that <math>g(w)=f^(-1)(w)</math>. We can then compute

:<math>

\oint_{w=0} \frac{d w}{2\pi i} \frac{1}{f(w) -z}