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In the section Candidates for one way functions, it is stated "...because the probability that an arbitrary p is odd is 1/2, and likewise for q(...)". But since 2 is the only even prime, that seems not correct? [[Special:Contributions/89.99.34.48|89.99.34.48]] ([[User talk:89.99.34.48|talk]]) 07:11, 24 July 2022 (UTC)
== "However, P≠NP does not imply the existence of one-way functions." ==
This statement implies P != NP and is therefore currently unknown. It should therefore be removed. (If P = NP, then P != NP is false and thus trivially implies anything.) --fiesh [[Special:Contributions/91.43.222.42|91.43.222.42]] ([[User talk:91.43.222.42|talk]]) 23:21, 15 November 2022 (UTC)
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