Analytic function: Difference between revisions

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Can anyone give a good example of a function that is real-analytic at some point but not complex-analytic there? I've already given one that is infintely differentiable but not analytic.
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In [[complex analysis]], a branch of [[mathematics]], the term '''''analytic function''''' is often used synonymously with [[holomorphic function]], which see.
 
However, the term admits another meaning in mathematics. An '''analytic function''' is a function that is locally given by a convergent [[power series]].
If a function ''f'' is differentiable in some open disk ''D'' centered at a point ''c'' in the complex field, then it necessarily has derivatives of all orders in that same open neighborhood, and the power series
 
:<math>\sum_{n=0}^\infty {f^{(n)}(c) \over n!} (z-c)^n</math>
 
converges to ''f''(''z'') at every point within ''D''. This is an important respect in which complex functions are better-behaved than real functions. Consider the real function
 
:<math>f(x)=\left\{\begin{matrix}e^{-1/x^2} & \mbox{if}\ x\neq 0 \\ \\ 0 & \mbox{if}\ x=0 \end{matrix}\right\}.</math>
 
One can show that ''f'' has derivatives of all orders at every point including 0. To show this at ''x'' = 0, use [[L'Hopital's rule]], [[mathematical induction]], and some simple substitutions. But in proving this, one will find that ''f''<sup>(n)</sup>(0) = 0 for all ''n''. Therefore, the [[Taylor series]] of ''f'' is zero at every point! Consequently ''f'' is '''''not analytic''''' at 0. This pathology cannot occur with functions of a complex variable rather than of a real variable.
 
One may say of a real function of a real variable that it is ''analytic'' if it is locally equal to its Taylor series, regardless of whether it remains so if one attempt to extend it to a function of a complex variable. In that case, ''analytic'' ceases to be synonymous with holomorphic.