Talk:Minkowski's question-mark function: Difference between revisions

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KSmrq (talk | contribs)
remark better use of "?"
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:Dates back to the dawn of the discovery of pathological functions, at the turn of the 20th century. Maybe it was felt to be very confusing? And maybe he had a twisted sense of humour. [[User:Linas|linas]] 00:36, 22 May 2005 (UTC)
:Why is ? any crazier than ! (asks one who shorthands sin and cos with $ and ¢)? [[User:Kwantus|Kwantus]] 2005 June 29 17:52 (UTC)
 
:Worse yet, it conflicts with a much more useful notation, ''d''?''k'' for the binomial coefficient ''d''!/(''d''−''k'')!''k''!, generalizing to ?&lang;''i''<sub>0</sub>,…,''i''<sub>''n''</sub>&rang; for the multinomial coefficient of a multi-index. Without regard for degree we can write
 
::<math>? I {\mathbf x}^I</math>
 
:as the general term of a multinomial expansion, where the multi-index exponent, as usual, means
 
::<math>x_0^{i_0} x_1^{i_1} \cdots x_n^{i_n}</math>,
 
:and
 
::<math>|I| = i_0 + i_1 + \cdots + i_n</math>
 
:equals the degree. Ah well; there's little chance of confusion. --[[User:KSmrq|KSmrq]]<sup>[[User talk:KSmrq|T]]</sup> 20:53, 2005 August 31 (UTC)